-- IgnacioMenchaca - 25 Sep 2014

The absence to an Inquisitional court may be due to lack of a political purposive for it. For example, in Spain the main objective of the Inquisition was to target false conversions to Christianism made by: (i) Jews, due to their expulsion of the Spanish realms as stated in the Alhambra Decree (issued on 31 March 1492); and (ii) Muslims, who remain in the Spanish peninsula after the Reconquista wars. As opposed to certain believes, the Spanish Inquisition had little interest in heresy (interpretation of holy literature) or witchcraft, devil worship or similar; the Inquisition goal was to have a Christian country free from foreign religion influence as a political tool to achieve a “less diverse” and more governable country. Do not forget that the Spanish Kings, as many of their European counterparts receive their power through God (the Christian god).

-- IgnacioMenchaca - 25 Sep 2014

The absence to an Inquisitional court may be due to lack of a political purposive for it. For example, in Spain the main objective of the Inquisition was to target false conversions to Christianism made by: (i) Jews, due to their expulsion of the Spanish realms as stated in the Alhambra Decree (issued on 31 March 1492); and (ii) Muslims, who remain in the Spanish peninsula after the Reconquista wars. As opposed to certain believes, the Spanish Inquisition had little interest in heresy (interpretation of holy literature) or witchcraft, devil worship or similar; the Inquisition goal was to have a Christian country free from foreign religion influence as a political tool to achieve a “less diverse” and more governable country. Do not forget that the Spanish Kings, as many of their European counterparts receive their power through God (the Christian god).

-- IgnacioMenchaca - 25 Sep 2014

I was wondering why England contained religious court that covered family and probate law, but had no Inquisitorial Court to handle heresy, witchcraft, etc.? Which courts then handled religious crimes such as heresy? Did the fact that there were no Inquisition mean that witchcraft and heresy were less often prosecuted in England?

-- MichaelCoburn - 24 Sep 2014

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